Multiple Choice Questions

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Multiple Choice Questions for Security Testing on Web Application

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Welcome to the Security Testing on Web Application Quiz!

1) What is the primary goal of security testing in a web application?

a) To improve the user interface and user experience.
b) To identify and mitigate security vulnerabilities within the application.
c) To enhance the application’s performance and load times.
b) To identify and mitigate security vulnerabilities within the application.

Answer 1

2) By using relative XPath locators

2) What does the acronym ‘OWASP’ stand for?

a) Open Web Application Security Project
b) Open Worldwide Application Security Protocol
c) Offline Web Application Security Program
d) Operational Web Application Safety Procedure

Answer 2

a) Open Web Application Security Project

3) Which of the following is a common method hackers use to find vulnerabilities in web applications?

a) Social engineering
b) Penetration testing
c) Phishing
d) All of the above

Answer 3

d) All of the above

4) What is the primary goal of encryption in web applications?

a) To compress data
b) To increase data integrity
c) To secure data transmission and storage
d) To improve server performance

Answer 4

c) To secure data transmission and storage

5) What is the main risk of using default configurations for web applications?

a) Performance degradation
b) Increased vulnerability to attacks
c) Incompatibility with browsers
d) Accessibility issues

Answer 5

b) Increased vulnerability to attacks

6) What is the main function of a web application firewall (WAF)?

a) To block unauthorized access to the network
b) To filter and monitor HTTP traffic between a web application and the Internet
c) To encrypt data in transit
d) To detect and remove malware from user devices

Answer 6

b) To filter and monitor HTTP traffic between a web application and the Internet

WAFs are designed to defend against a variety of attacks that aim to exploit vulnerabilities in web applications, including:

– SQL Injection
– Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
– Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)
– File Inclusion

7) Which of the following HTTP headers is used to enhance security by declaring how browsers should handle site’s content?

a) Content-Type
b) Strict-Transport-Security
c) Content-Security-Policy
d) Cache-Control

Answer 7

c) Content-Security-Policy

It helps to prevent various types of attacks such as Cross-Site Scripting (XSS), clickjacking, and other code injection attacks by restricting resources like scripts, styles, or media from being loaded from unauthorized sources.

8) What is a common result of a successful buffer overflow attack?

a) Data leakage
b) Execution of arbitrary code
c) Network eavesdropping
d) Denial of service

Answer 8

b) Execution of arbitrary code

9) What does the term “privilege escalation” refer to in web application security?

a) The granting of highest-level access to all users
b) An attacker obtaining unauthorized higher-level privileges
c) The prioritization of security patches based on severity
d) Increasing the complexity of user authentication mechanisms

Answer 9

b) An attacker obtaining unauthorized higher-level privileges

10) What is the function of the HttpOnly attribute in a cookie?

a) To ensure cookies are only transferred over HTTPS
b) To limit cookies to the current session
c) To prevent access to cookies via JavaScript
d) To enable cross-domain cookie usage

Answer 10

c) To prevent access to cookies via JavaScript

11) Which of the following is implemented during secure session management to enhance security?

a) Storing sessions in browser local storage
b) Terminating sessions after a period of inactivity
c) Using random session IDs
d) b and c

Answer 11

d) b and c

12) Which type of attack is mitigated by setting the Secure attribute on cookies?

a) Clickjacking
b) SQL Injection
c) Man-in-the-middle (MitM) attack
d) Session hijacking over HTTP

Answer 12

2) Clickjacking

13) What type of attack exploits the trust a user has in a particular site?

a) Phishing
b) SQL Injection
c) Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
d) Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)

Answer 13

d) Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)

14) What is Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)?

a) A method to steal user cookies
b) A technique to redirect users to a malicious site
c) An attack that tricks the victim into submitting a malicious request
d) None of the above

Answer 14

c) An attack that tricks the victim into submitting a malicious request

15) Which security mechanism is designed to prevent CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery) attacks?

a) Input validation
b) Use of CSRF tokens
c) Secure cookies
d) Output encoding

Answer 15

b) Use of CSRF tokens

16) What is Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)?

a) A scripting language for web development
b) A technique to enhance website design
c) An attack where malicious scripts are injected into web pages
d) A secure communication protocol

Answer 16

c) An attack where malicious scripts are injected into web pages

17) Which of the following is NOT a type of cross-site scripting (XSS)?

a) Reflected XSS
b) Stored XSS
c) DOM-based XSS
d) Injection XSS

Answer 17

d) Injection XSS

18) What is a potential risk associated with insecure file uploads on a web application?

a) Improved user experience
b) Increased server performance
c) Remote code execution
d) Enhanced data integrity

Answer 18

c) Remote code execution

19) Which of the following is a best practice for password storage?

a) Storing passwords in plain text
b) Encrypting passwords using symmetric key encryption
c) Hashing passwords using a strong, one-way hashing algorithm with salt
d) Using passwords only for trusted users

Answer 19

c) Hashing passwords using a strong, one-way hashing algorithm with salt

20) What is the primary purpose of HTTPS?

a) To redirect users to the correct webpage
b) To improve website loading times
c) To encrypt data transmitted between the user’s browser and the web server
d) To block unwanted ads

Answer 20

c) To encrypt data transmitted between the user’s browser and the web server

21) Which HTTP header can be used to protect against clickjacking attacks?

a) Content-Security-Policy
b) X-Frame-Options
c) X-XSS-Protection
d) Strict-Transport-Security

Answer 21

b) X-Frame-Options

22) What is the purpose of content security policy (CSP)?

a) To prevent data breaches
b) To protect against XSS attacks
c) To enforce secure password handling
d) To block SQL injections

Answer 22

b) To protect against XSS attacks

23) Which protocol is designed to replace the widely exploited TELNET and offer encrypted communication?

a) HTTP
b) SSH
c) FTP
d) SMTP

Answer 23

b) SSH

24) Which OWASP tool is used primarily for penetration testing of web applications?

a) OWASP ZAP
b) Metasploit
c) Nmap
d) John the Ripper

Answer 24

a) OWASP ZAP

25) During a web application penetration test, what is the importance of session management testing?

a) To identify UI/UX issues
b) To ensure efficient data processing
c) To verify secure user session handling
d) To optimize web server performance

Answer 25

c) To verify secure user session handling

vibssingh

Multiple Choice Questions for Security Testing on API Testing

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Security Quiz – You can test your knowledge with this Security Testing. 

1. What is the primary goal of security testing in API testing?

a) To ensure the API functions as expected
b) To verify the API’s security features against potential vulnerabilities
c) To check API response times
d) To test the user interface of the API

Answer 1

b) To verify the API’s security features against potential vulnerabilities

2. Which of the following is a common security vulnerability in APIs?

a) SQL Injection
b) Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
c) Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)
d) All of the above

Answer 2

d) All of the above

3. Which attack can occur if an API does not properly validate user inputs?

a) Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
b) Denial of Service (DoS)
c) SQL Injection
d) Both a and c

Answer 3

d) Both a and c

4. What type of vulnerability can occur if an API leaks sensitive information in error messages?

a) Data Injection
b) Information Disclosure
c) XML External Entity (XXE)
d) Broken Object Level Authorization (BOLA)

Answer 4

b) Information Disclosure

5. Which of these is a common tool used for API security testing?

a) Postman
b) Burp Suite
c) Swagger
d) Selenium

Answer 5

b) Burp Suite

6. Which of the following is NOT a common security mechanism used for APIs?

a) OAuth
b) JWT (JSON Web Token)
c) SSL/TLS
d) XML Parsing

Answer 6

d) XML Parsing

7. What does the term “Rate Limiting” refer to in API security?

a) The process of limiting the number of API requests a user can make within a specified time period
b) The restriction of access to a specific set of users based on their IP address
c) The process of allowing only authenticated users to access the API
d) The encryption of data being sent in API requests

Answer 7

a) The process of limiting the number of API requests a user can make within a specified time period

8. What is the primary purpose of using an API token for authentication?

a) To ensure that the API request is coming from a valid user or system
b) To speed up the API response
c) To make the API endpoint accessible to everyone
d) To increase the load on the server

Answer 8

a) To ensure that the API request is coming from a valid user or system

9. What is the best practice to prevent SQL Injection in API testing?

a) Allowing raw user inputs in the SQL queries
b) Using parameterized queries or prepared statements
c) Relying only on the database’s built-in security
d) Allowing all API inputs

Answer 9

b) Using parameterized queries or prepared statements

10. Which of the following is a technique for testing the authorization of API access?

a) Testing if an API endpoint allows unauthenticated requests
b) Testing the validity of an API token
c) Ensuring that API responses include proper status codes for unauthorized access (e.g., 401, 403)
d) All of the above

Answer 10

d) All of the above

11. What is the significance of encryption in API security?

a) To ensure data integrity by verifying the data is not tampered with
b) To ensure data is securely transmitted and cannot be easily read by unauthorized users
c) To speed up the API response
d) To allow multiple API users to access the same data

Answer 11

b) To ensure data is securely transmitted and cannot be easily read by unauthorized users

12. Which of the following API security measures helps in protecting sensitive data during transmission?

a) Use of HTTPS
b) IP Whitelisting
c) User Authentication
d) Query String Parameters

Answer 12

a) Use of HTTPS

13. What type of attack does Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) typically target in API security?

a) It exploits the trust that a site has in the user’s browser
b) It targets the API endpoint to inject malicious code
c) It exploits weaknesses in the client-side JavaScript
d) It bypasses authentication mechanisms

Answer 13

a) It exploits the trust that a site has in the user’s browser

14. Which method is commonly used to protect sensitive data in APIs during storage?

a) Encryption
b) Caching
c) Compression
d) Rate Limiting

Answer 14

a) Encryption

15. What type of API attack involves sending malicious code through input fields to compromise the server or database?

a) Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
b) SQL Injection
c) Man-in-the-Middle (MitM)
d) DoS (Denial of Service)

Answer 15

b) SQL Injection

16. Which of the following is a valid security mechanism to prevent API key theft?

a) Store the API key in a local text file
b) Use secure methods like OAuth for authentication
c) Embed API keys directly in the frontend JavaScript code
d) None of the above

Answer 16

b) Use secure methods like OAuth for authentication

17. What is Broken Object Level Authorization (BOLA)?

a) An attack that exploits poor input validation
b) A vulnerability where users can access objects they are not authorized to view
c) A flaw in API rate limiting implementation
d) A security gap caused by misconfigured SSL/TLS settings

Answer 17

b) A vulnerability where users can access objects they are not authorized to view

18. What does the term API spoofing refer to in security?

a) Manipulating API responses to deceive users
b) Impersonating a legitimate user or system to gain unauthorized access
c) Intercepting API requests and altering data during transmission
d) Exploiting an API vulnerability to crash the server

Answer 18

b) Impersonating a legitimate user or system to gain unauthorized access

19. Which of the following is a best practice for securing API endpoints?

a) Using a single access key for all users
b) Applying security measures such as authentication, encryption, and authorization for every API request
c) Allowing unlimited access to the API without any restrictions
d) Not validating input from users

Answer 19

b) Applying security measures such as authentication, encryption, and authorization for every API request

20. Which of the following is an example of an insecure API design practice?

a) Using secure, token-based authentication (OAuth)
b) Storing API keys in a public GitHub repository
c) Encrypting sensitive data in transit
d) Implementing rate limiting

Answer 20

b) Storing API keys in a public GitHub repository

21. What is the primary function of OAuth in API security?

a) To enable public access to APIs
b) To authenticate and authorize users securely for API access
c) To protect the API server from being overloaded
d) To validate data inputs

Answer 21

b) To authenticate and authorize users securely for API access

22. Which HTTP status code indicates that a client is not authorized to access a resource?

a) 200 OK
b) 401 Unauthorized
c) 500 Internal Server Error
d) 404 Not Found

Answer 22

b) 401 Unauthorized

23. Why is it essential to validate API responses?

a) To minimize bandwidth usage
b) To detect unauthorized data leakage
c) To ensure API compatibility with browsers
d) To verify that the API uses REST principles

Answer 23

b) To detect unauthorized data leakage

24. What type of API attack involves overwhelming the server with a massive number of requests?

a) SQL Injection
b) XML Injection
c) Denial of Service (DoS)
d) Man-in-the-Middle (MITM)

Answer 24

c) Denial of Service (DoS)

25. What is the purpose of using CORS (Cross-Origin Resource Sharing) in API security?

a) To block all external access to APIs
b) To prevent unauthorized domains from accessing API resources
c) To speed up API communication
d) To allow unrestricted access to API endpoints

Answer 25

b) To prevent unauthorized domains from accessing API resources

vibssingh

DevOps Multiple Choice Answers – MCQ2

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Welcome to the DevOps Quiz! This blog post features answers to DevOps questions that explore key DevOps concepts, covering foundational principles and commonly used tools in a typical DevOps pipeline.

DevOps Multiple Choice Questions – MCQ2

Answers

1) d) All of the above

2) c) Waterfall Software Delivery.

3) a) DevOps is only suitable for start-up companies

4) c) Blue-Green Deployment

Blue-Green Deployment involves two parallel environments – Blue (current production) and Green (clone of production). New code is deployed to the Green environment and, once tested and verified, traffic is switched to it.

5) c) Tracking changes to source code

A VCS like Git allows developers to track and manage changes to source code, facilitating collaboration and version management.

6) c) Terraform

Terraform is a widely-used tool for defining and providing cloud infrastructure using a declarative configuration language. It enables Infrastructure as Code (IaC) practices for cloud resources.

7) b) Continuous Integration

Continuous Integration (CI) is a DevOps practice where developers integrate code into a shared repository several times a day. It encourages more frequent code integrations and testing.

8) c) Grafana

Grafana is an open-source platform for monitoring and observability. It’s commonly used to visualize metrics from time-series databases.

9) b) Infrastructure components that are never updated once deployed

Immutable Infrastructure refers to an approach where once infrastructure components are deployed, they are never modified. Instead, if changes are needed, new instances are created to replace the old ones.

10) c) Configuration Management

Configuration Management involves the use of tools and practices to automate the provisioning and management of servers, ensuring that they maintain the desired state over time.

11) d) Ansible

12) d)Infrastructure as code and configuration management tools that enable the programmers in changing the environments themselves

13) b) No

14) c) Archetype

15) c) Telemetry is the process of recording the behaviour of your systems.

16) c) Reproducible and version-controlled infrastructure changes.

17) c) Implementing automated Dependency Scanning in the CI/CD pipeline.

18) d) Allows flexibility to choose the best environment for specific workloads.

19) d) Enables reproducible and consistent deployments with pre-built images.

20) b) Siloed Development, as breaking down organizational silos is a key aspect of fostering collaboration and efficiency in DevOps.

21) d) Both a) and b)

22) d) All of the above

23) a) Changes deployed by creating new instances with the updates applied, modifying existing instances directly.

24) a) Developers collaborate on code in a single branch called “trunk”.

25) b) Never mix test driven development (TDD) together with your test automation approach.

Additional MCQ

DevOps Multiple Choice Questions – MCQ1 
Jenkins Multiple Choice Questions – MCQ1
Rest API Multiple Choice Questions – MCQ1
Git Multiple Choice Questions – MCQ1 
JMeter Multiple Choice Questions – MCQ1
vibssingh

DevOps Multiple Choice Questions – MCQ2

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Welcome to the DevOps Quiz! This blog post features more than 20 multiple-choice questions that explore key DevOps concepts, covering foundational principles and commonly used tools in a typical DevOps pipeline.

1. What are the key components of DevOps?

Select the best answer

a) Continuous Testing
b) Continuous Integration
c) Continuous Delivery & Monitoring
d) All of the above

Answer

2. Which one of the following methodologies does least impact the establishment of DevOps methodology?

Choose one option

a) Lean Manufacturing.
b) Agile Software Delivery.
c) Waterfall Software Delivery.
d) Continuous Software Delivery.

Answer

3. Which one of the following statements about DevOps is incorrect?

Choose one option

a) DevOps is only suitable for start-up companies
b) DevOps is suitable for brownfield software products and services
c) DevOps is suitable for greenfield software products and services
d) Some of the most exemplary DevOps initiatives started in companies with giant and mature IT organizations

Answer

4. Which practice involves deploying code into a production-like environment before actual production?

Choose one option

a) Continuous Testing
b) Canary Release
c) Blue-Green Deployment
d) Continuous Deployment

Answer

5. What is a Version Control System (VCS) primarily used for?

a) Infrastructure monitoring
b) Configuration management
c) Tracking changes to source code
d) Application deployment

Answer

6. Which tool is often used for orchestrating cloud infrastructure as code?

a) Jenkins
b) Grafana
c) Terraform
d) Docker

Answer

7. Which of the following is not a benefit of Automation in DevOps?

a) Continuous Deployment
b) Continuous Integration
c) Continuous Monitoring
d) Continuous Feedback

Answer

8. Which of the following tools is primarily associated with monitoring and visualizing time-series data?

Choose one option

a) Ansible
b) Git
c) Grafana
d) Puppet

Answer

9. What does the term “Immutable Infrastructure” refer to?

Choose one option

a) Infrastructure that can be easily changed and adapted
b) Infrastructure components that are never updated once deployed
c) Frequently changing infrastructure
d) Infrastructure that is resistant to hacker attacks

Answer

10. Which DevOps practice involves automating the provisioning and management of servers?

Choose one option

a) Continuous Monitoring
b) Continuous Feedback
c) Configuration Management
d) Continuous Testing

Answer

11. Which DevOps tool is known for its “Infrastructure as Code” capabilities and agentless architecture?

Choose one option

a) Jenkins
b) Git
c) Puppet
d) Ansible

Answer

12. Which tooling can best be used to automate the building and configuration of environments?

Choose one option

a) A ticketing system for the provision of a development, test or acceptance environment ​
b) A tool that copies the production environment settings to the development, test and acceptance environments
c) Configuration files per environment that are manually distributed and maintained in order to keep the environments in sync
d)Infrastructure as code and configuration management tools that enable the programmers in changing the environments themselves

Answer

13. What does IaC stand for in DevOps?

Choose one option

a) yes
b) No
c) May be
d) None of the Above

Answer

14. Which maven plugin creates the project structure?

Choose one option

a) Execution
b) Properties
c) Archetype
d) Dependency

Answer

15. What is telemetry?

Choose one option

a) Telemetry is a widely known SaaS tool to plan and execute DevOps projects.
b) Telemetry is a communication tool used by DevOps teams at geographically distributed locations.
c) Telemetry is the process of recording the behaviour of your systems.
d) Telemetry is a tool to design, code and execute automated unit tests.

Answer

16. The DevOps team at Innovation Solutions is adopting Infrastructure as Code (IaC) for managing their cloud infrastructure. What is a key advantage of using IaC in terms of infrastructure provisioning and configuration?

Choose one option

a) Manual intervention for each infrastructure change.
b) Infrastructure changes performed only by the operations team.
c) Reproducible and version-controlled infrastructure changes.
d) Infrastructure changes documented in a separate manual document.

Answer

17. As a DevOps engineer at AWS DevOps Certification Services, you are tasked with improving the security posture of the CI/CD pipeline. What security practice should be implemented to detect and address vulnerabilities in third-party dependencies during the build process?

Choose one option

a) Manual code review by security experts.
b) Regularly updating dependencies without security analysis.
c) Implementing automated Dependency Scanning in the CI/CD pipeline.
d) Ignoring third-party dependencies to prioritize faster builds.

Answer

18. The DevOps team at DevOps Foundation Inc (Part of DevOps Institute) is considering the adoption of a hybrid cloud strategy. What is a key advantage of a hybrid cloud approach compared to a purely on-premises or public cloud solution?

Choose one option

a) Reduced flexibility in choosing cloud providers.
b) Higher costs associated with data transfer between on-premises and the cloud.
c) Optimized for either fully on-premises or fully public cloud solutions.
d) Allows flexibility to choose the best environment for specific workloads.

Answer

 19. The DevOps team at Microsoft DevOps Azure Solutions is implementing automated deployment pipelines. What is a key advantage of using immutable infrastructure in the deployment process?

a) Requires manual configuration for each deployment.
b) Allows for in-place updates to running infrastructure.
c) Minimizes consistency across different environments.
d) Enables reproducible and consistent deployments with pre-built images.

Answer

20. Devops supports the elimination of _ because it can hamper collaboration, operations and morale within the company.

Choose one option

a) Excessive Documentation, which tends to create bottlenecks and hinder effective communication.
b) Siloed Development, as it impedes the flow of information and slows down the overall delivery process.
c) Traditional Waterfall Methodology, which lacks agility and responsiveness to changing requirements.
d) Manual Testing Practices, as they introduce delays and are prone to human errors.

Answer

21. How does DevOps impact security of an application or machine?

a) Security is increased by including it earlier in the process.
b) Security is increased because of the automation process.
c) Security is reduced because of the automation process.
d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

22. What are the some important features of Memcached?

a) Callbacks
b) CAS Tokens
c) getDelayed & Igbinary
d) All of the above

Answer

23. Certain companies utilize immutable deployment, in which changes to the system are _ as opposed to _.

a) Changes deployed by creating new instances with the updates applied, modifying existing instances directly.
b) Changes are temporarily implemented, allowing adjustments post-deployment.
c) Changes are dynamically applied, enabling real-time system modifications.
d) Changes are stored in a separate environment for future manual application.

Answer

24. What is trunk in trunk based DevOps delivery?

a) Developers collaborate on code in a single branch called “trunk”.
b) Trunk is a special private branch in a developer workstation.
c) Trunk is the process of merging code in DevOps deliveries.
d) Trunk is a special source code version controlling system which stores mission critical special projects of your DevOps organization.

Answer

25. Which one of the following is not one of the DevOps principles for good test automation?

a) Test Automation should give quick and early feedback about your quality of work.
b) Never mix test driven development (TDD) together with your test automation approach.
c) Tests should generate consistent, deterministic and repeatable results provided same conditions for different test runs.
d) With your test automation, avoid slow and periodic feedback. What you need is fast feedback whenever you or your developer attempts to check-in code to your trunk.

Answer

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Additional MCQ

DevOps Multiple Choice Questions – MCQ1 
Jenkins Multiple Choice Questions – MCQ1
Rest API Multiple Choice Questions – MCQ1
Git Multiple Choice Questions – MCQ1 
JMeter Multiple Choice Questions – MCQ1

vibssingh

Advance Selenium Multiple Choice Questions – MCQ1

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Welcome to the Advance Selenium Quiz! This blog post features 25 multiple-choice questions that explore essential concepts of Selenium.

1. What are the different types of frameworks in Selenium?

Select the best answer

a) Data Driven Framework
b) Keyboard Driven Framework
c) Hybrid Framework
d) Page Object Model Framework
e) All

Answer

2. Is it possible to test APIs or web services using Selenium Webdriver?

Choose one option

a) Yes
b) No

Answer

3. Is it possible to test the database using Selenium?

Choose one option

a) Yes
b) No

Answer

4. Does Selenium come with built-in reporting capabilities?

Choose one option

a) Yes
b) No

Answer

5. Is cross-browser testing supported by Selenium?

Choose one option

a) Yes
b) No

Answer

6. Is parallel testing supported by Selenium?

a) Yes
b) No

Answer

7. Can Selenium handle Security Testing on its own?

a) Yes
b) No

Answer

8. Can we integrate Selenium Framework with CI/CD pipelines?

Choose one option

a) Yes
b) No

Answer

9. What is the purpose of using the PageFactory class in Selenium?

Choose one option

a) To find elements on a page using CSS selectors
b) To manage the browser cookies
c) To initialize web elements defined in a Page Object class
d) To handle browser pop-ups

Answer

10. Which WebDriver method is used to wait until a web element is visible on the page?

Choose one option

a)  driver.waitForElement()

b)  new WebDriverWait().until(ExpectedConditions.elementToBeClickable())

c)  Thread.sleep()

d)  new WebDriverWait().until(ExpectedConditions.visibilityOfElementLocated())

Answer

11. Which WebDriver method simulates a right-click (context click) action on a web element?

Choose one option

a)  Actions.doubleClick(element)

b)  WebElement.contextClick()

c)  Actions.moveToElement(element).click()

d)  Actions.contextClick(element)

Answer

12.  How do you take a screenshot in Selenium WebDriver?

Choose one option

a)  driver.takeScreenshot()

b)  ((TakesScreenshot) driver).getScreenshotAs(OutputType.FILE)

c)  driver.getScreenshot()

d)  driver.captureScreen()

Answer

13. Is it possible to integrate Selenium with JUnit?

Choose one option

a) Yes
b) No

Answer

14. Is it possible to integrate Selenium with TestNG?

Choose one option

a) Yes
b) No

Answer

15. How can data-driven tests be achieved in Selenium with TestNG?

Choose one option

a) By using the @DataProvider annotation
b) By using the @DataDriven annotation
c) By using the @Test annotation with parameters attribute
d) By using the @TestData annotation

Answer

16. How can you run Selenium tests in parallel using TestNG?

Choose one option

a) Modify the test class constructor
b) Use the synchronized keyword
c) Configure the testng.xml file with parallel execution settings
d) Use the parallel=true annotation

Answer

17. Which CI/CD tool is widely used for integrating Selenium tests in an automated build process?

Choose one option

a) Jenkins
b) Microsoft Excel
c) PowerPoint
d) Oracle Database

Answer

18. In Jenkins, which plugin is commonly used to visualize test results generated by Selenium tests?

Choose one option

a) HTML Publisher Plugin
b) CSV Export Plugin
c) Spreadsheet Plugin
d) Diagram Generator Plugin

Answer

 19. Which Selenium Grid capability is particularly useful in a CI/CD pipeline for executing tests in parallel across different browsers and platforms?

a) Browser Synthetic Testing
b) Remote WebDriver
c) Cross-Browser Testing
d) Selenium IDE

Answer

20. When integrating Selenium with a CI/CD pipeline, what is the role of the Headless browser mode?

Choose one option

a) To execute browser tests without a graphical user interface, reducing resource consumption
b) To run tests exclusively on mobile devices
c) To make browsers invisible while the graphical interface is still running
d) To configure user sessions on virtual machines

Answer

21. How can you store sensitive information, such as Selenium Grid credentials, securely in GitHub Actions?

a) Directly hardcode the credentials into the YAML file
b) Use GitHub Secrets to store and access sensitive information
c) Email the credentials to team members
d) Store the credentials in a public repository

Answer

22. Is it possible to run Selenium tests using Cucumber?

a) Yes
b) No

Answer

23. Can we use Selenium for Performance Testing?

a) Yes
b) No

Answer

24. Does Selenium has inbuilt functionality to test excel?

a) Yes
b) No

Answer

25. Does Selenium have built-in functionality to test PDF files?

a) Yes
b) No

Answer

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Advance Selenium Multiple Choice Answers – MCQ1

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Welcome to the SQL Quiz!

Advance Selenium Multiple Choice Questions – MCQ1

Answers

1) e) All

2) b) No

It is not possible to test APIs or web services directly using Selenium WebDriver. Selenium is primarily designed for automating web browser interactions and performing functional testing of web applications by simulating user actions.

3) b) No

4) b) No

5) a) Yes

6) a) Yes

By using testing frameworks such as TestNG or JUnit, you can configure and run your Selenium tests in parallel.

7) b) No

Selenium cannot handle security testing on its own. However, it can assist in certain aspects of security testing when integrated with specialized security tools.

8) a) Yes

9) c) To initialize web elements defined in a Page Object class

10) d) new WebDriverWait().until(ExpectedConditions.visibilityOfElementLocated())

11) d) Actions.contextClick(element)

12) b) ((TakesScreenshot) driver).getScreenshotAs(OutputType.FILE)

13) a) Yes

14) a) Yes

15) a) By using the @DataProvider annotation

16) c) Configure the testng.xml file with parallel execution settings

17) a) Jenkins

18) a) HTML Publisher Plugin

19) c) Cross-Browser Testing

20) a) To execute browser tests without a graphical user interface, reducing resource consumption

21) b) Use GitHub Secrets to store and access sensitive information

22) a) Yes

23) b) No

Selenium is not designed for performance testing. For performance testing, specialized tools such as JMeter, Gatling, and LoadRunner are more appropriate.

24) b) No

Selenium does not have inbuilt functionality specifically for testing Excel files. We can use external libraries in conjunction with Selenium to work with Excel files, like Apache POI.

25) b) No

vibssingh

JMeter Multiple Choice Answers – MCQ1

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Welcome to the JMeter Quiz!

JMeter Multiple Choice Questions – MCQ1

Answers

1) a) Apache

2) b) Performance and load testing

3) d) All of the above

4) c) Both A and B

5) d) All of the above

6) d) Bluetooth

7) d) All of the above

8) d) All of the above

9) d) Desktop

10) c) To define the number of users and the duration of the test

11) a) Non-functional

12) d) All of the above

13) c) Both A and B

14) d) Fatigue

15) c) Both (a) and (b)

16) a) True

17) a) True

18) a) True

19) a) True

20) a) Load

21) a) True

22) b) REACT OS

23) c) FTP Cookie Manager

24) d) All of the above

25) d) All of the above

vibssingh

JMeter Multiple Choice Questions – MCQ1

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Welcome to the JMeter Quiz! This blog post features 25 multiple-choice questions that explore essential concepts of Performance Testing and JMeter.

1. This graphical application is 100% Java-based and open source, also known as __ JMeter.

Select the best answer

Apache
Java
Ajax
SQL

Answer

2. What is Apache JMeter primarily used for?

Choose one option

a) Editing text files
b) Performance and load testing
c) Virus scanning
d) Image editing

Answer

3. Which of the following is a component of the JMeter Distributed Testing?

Choose one option

a) Slave
b) Target
c) Master
d) All of the above

Answer

4. Testing __ applications are the primary use of JMeter, but other uses are functional testing, JDBC database connections, Web services, generic TCP connections, and OS native processes as well.

Choose one option

a) Web
b) FTP
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

Answer

5. The JMeter performance testing tool offers various test activities, such as __, Regression, and Functional testing, in order to determine your web server’s performance metrics accurately.

Choose one option

a) Performance
b) Load
c) Stress
d) All of the above

Answer

6. Which of the following protocols is NOT supported by JMeter?

a) HTTP/HTTPS
b) FTP
c) SMTP
d) Bluetooth

Answer

7. What is/are the feature(s) of JMeter?

a) Open source application
b) User-friendly GUI
c) Support various testing approaches
d) All of the above

Answer

8. What types of apps can be tested using JMeter?

Choose one option

a) Websites
b) Databases(JDBc)
c) Web services both – REST and SOAP
d) All of the above

Answer

9. ________type is not supported by the JMeter

Choose one option

a) Web
b) JAR
c) LDAP
d) Desktop

Answer

10. What is the purpose of the Thread Group in JMeter?

Choose one option

a) To define the test plan
b) To define the target system
c) To define the number of users and the duration of the test
d) To define the type of test to be performed

Answer

11. Tests of software performance evaluate the application’s performance under expected or higher loads as a __ test.

Choose one option

a) Non-functional
b) Semi-functional
c) Functional
d) None of the above

Answer

12.  Different performance attributes of the system are measured during performance testing, such as __, scalability, and stability.

Choose one option

a) Response time (speed)
b) Reliability
c) Resource Use
d) All of the above

Answer

13. Why is Performance Testing needed?

Choose one option

a) It is important to test the final software product for speed, scalability, and stability under a variety of load conditions before launching it into the market.
b) It’s likely to cause slow processing and poor usability if the product goes live without performing performance testing, which can negatively affect the sales goal.
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above

Answer

14. Stress Testing is also known as __.

Choose one option

a) Fatal
b) Crucial
c) Former
d) Fatigue

Answer

15. What is/are the type(s) of Performance Testing?

Choose one option

a) Load
b) Stress
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above

Answer

16. Stress testing forces loading by bouncing system loading, you can determine how well the server can marshal resources to meet very high demand.

Choose one option

a) True
b) False

Answer

17. Load testing examines real-world loading at a variety of load levels and in a variety of combinations.

Choose one option

a) True
b) False

Answer

18. A variation of stress testing is sometimes referred to as spike/bounce testing.

Choose one option

a) True
b) False

Answer

 19. By bouncing system loading, you can determine how well the server can marshal resources to meet very high demand.

a) True
b) False

Answer

20. During __ testing, different systems can be compared or a single system’s capabilities can be accurately measured in controlled lab conditions.

Choose one option

a) Load
b) Stress
c) Reference
d) Data

Answer

21. Stress testing forces loading to be increased to the breaking point to determine how much capacity the WebApp environment can handle.

a) True
b) False

Answer

22. JMeter does not support which of the following platforms?

a) Linux
b) REACT OS
c) Windows
d) MAC OS X

Answer

23. In JMeter, choose the INVALID configuration element.

a) FTP Request Defaults
b) HTTP Request Defaults
c) FTP Cookie Manager
d) HTTP Cookie Manager

Answer

24. __, logic controllers, and configuration elements make up a test plan.

a) Assertions
b) Listeners
c) Timers
d) All of the above

Answer

25. The major components of JMeter is/are –

a) Test Plan
b) Thread Group
c) Controllers
d) All of the above

Answer

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vibssingh

Jenkins Multiple Choice Answers – MCQ2

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Welcome to the Jenkins Quiz!

Jenkins Multiple Choice Questions – MCQ2

Answers

1) B) Blue Ocean Plugin

2) C) Jenkins notifies you and allows you to decide when to restart

3) C) Use Global Tool Configuration to add different Git versions

4) A) SonarQube Scanner Plugin

5) C) Go to Manage Plugins and uninstall the plugin from the Installed tab

6) C) To store build artifacts generated by the build process

7) A) To provide a log of the builds that have been performed in Jenkins

The Jenkins Build History provides a log of the builds that have been performed in Jenkins. It allows users to view the status of previous builds and identify any issues that occurred

8) C) A tool used to manage the installation of software on Jenkins nodes

The Jenkins Global Tool Configuration is a tool used to manage the installation of software on Jenkins nodes. It allows users to specify which software tools are required for builds and ensures that they are installed on the nodes.

9) A) To provide an overview of the status of Jenkins jobs

The Jenkins Dashboard provides an overview of the status of Jenkins jobs. It allows users to monitor the progress of builds and view the results of tests.

10) B) A folder where Jenkins builds and stores files for a job

11) D) All of the above

12) B) SCM polling trigger

13) B) Groovy

14) B) A machine that Jenkins can use to execute jobs

15) C) A more structured and simplified way to define pipelines

16) A) Jenkins Master is the central server, while Jenkins Slave is a remote agent

17) C) Jenkinsfile

18) A) A syntax used to define the build process in Jenkins

The Jenkins Pipeline Syntax is a syntax used to define the build process in Jenkins. It is used to create pipelines that automate the building, testing, and deployment of software.

19) A) To validate the syntax of Jenkinsfiles

The Jenkinsfile Validator is used to validate the syntax of Jenkinsfiles. It ensures that the syntax is correct and identifies any errors or issues.

20) B) To execute Jenkins jobs on Jenkins Nodes

The Jenkins Build Executor is used to execute Jenkins jobs on Jenkins Nodes. It is responsible for running the build process and executing the commands specified in the job configuration.

21) D) To queue Jenkins jobs for execution by the Build Executor

The Jenkins Build Queue is used to queue Jenkins jobs for execution by the Build Executor. Jobs are placed in the queue when there are no Build Executors available to execute them, and are executed in the order in which they were added to the queue.

22) C) To store build artifacts generated by the build process

Jenkins Artifacts are used to store build artifacts generated by the build process. Artifacts can include compiled code, test results, and documentation, and are stored in the Jenkins workspace.

23) D) A mechanism used to authenticate users in Jenkins

The Jenkins Authentication Mechanism is used to authenticate users in Jenkins. It can be configured to use a variety of authentication methods, including LDAP and Active Directory.

24) D) The machine on which the Jenkins server is installed

The Jenkins Master is the machine on which the Jenkins server is installeD) It is responsible for managing the Jenkins configuration, scheduling builds, and distributing work to Jenkins slaves.

25) C) A machine that is configured to execute builds for a Jenkins Master

A Jenkins Slave is a machine that is configured to execute builds for a Jenkins Master. It receives work from the Jenkins Master and executes it in a separate process or container.

vibssingh

Jenkins Multiple Choice Questions – MCQ2

Last Updated On

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Welcome to the Jenkins Quiz! This blog post features 25 multiple-choice questions that explore essential concepts of Jenkins.

1. Which plugin helps in visually modeling your Jenkins pipeline and improving the user experience?

Select the best answer

A) Pipeline Plugin
B) Blue Ocean Plugin
C) Job DSL Plugin
D) Pipeline Stage View Plugin

Answer

2. What happens when a plugin update requires a restart in Jenkins?

Choose one option

A) Jenkins automatically restarts without notification
B) The update is applied immediately without any restart
C) Jenkins notifies you and allows you to decide when to restart
D) The plugin is updated only after all builds are completed

Answer

3. How can you configure multiple versions of Git in Jenkins?

Choose one option

A) Install the Git Plugin and configure versions in each job
B) Install multiple versions in the system and select one during job configuration
C) Use Global Tool Configuration to add different Git versions
D) Jenkins does not support multiple Git versions

Answer

4. In Jenkins, which plugin would you use to set up static code analysis?

Choose one option

A) SonarQube Scanner Plugin
B) GitHub Plugin
C) Email Extension Plugin
D) Pipeline Plugin

Answer

5. How do you remove an installed plugin in Jenkins?

Choose one option

A) Manually delete the plugin from the Jenkins directory
B) Use the CLI to remove it
C) Go to Manage Plugins and uninstall the plugin from the Installed tab
D) Plugins cannot be uninstalled

Answer

6. What is the purpose of the Jenkins Artifacts?

A) To provide a log of the builds that have been performed in Jenkins
B) To manage the configuration of Jenkins
C) To store build artifacts generated by the build process
D) To enable Jenkins to communicate with external systems

Answer

7. What is the purpose of the Jenkins Build History?

A) To provide a log of the builds that have been performed in Jenkins
B) To manage the configuration of Jenkins
C) To generate reports on the status of Jenkins jobs
D) To enable Jenkins to communicate with external systems

Answer

8. What is the Jenkins Global Tool Configuration?

Choose one option

A) A feature that allows users to configure global settings in Jenkins
B) A plugin that provides additional functionality to Jenkins
C) A tool used to manage the installation of software on Jenkins nodes
D) A tool used to manage the distribution of work to Jenkins slaves

Answer

9. What is the purpose of the Jenkins Dashboard?

Choose one option

A) To provide an overview of the status of Jenkins jobs
B) To manage the configuration of Jenkins
C) To generate reports on the status of Jenkins jobs
D) To enable Jenkins to communicate with external systems

Answer

10. What does the “workspace” in Jenkins refer to?

Choose one option

A) A specific plugin’s settings page
B) A folder where Jenkins builds and stores files for a job
C) A project created by Jenkins users
D) A shared Jenkins repository for storing jobs

Answer

11. Jenkins can be integrated with which of the following version control systems?

Choose one option

A) Git
B) Subversion (SVN)
C) Mercurial
D) All of the above

Answer

12.  Which type of trigger can be used in Jenkins to start a job automatically?

Choose one option

A) Manual trigger
B) SCM polling trigger
C) Post-build trigger
D) Automated backup trigger

Answer

13. Jenkins pipelines are defined using which language?

Choose one option

A) YAML
B) Groovy
C) XML
D) Python

Answer

14. What is a Jenkins “node”?

Choose one option

A) A code block in a Jenkins pipeline
B) A machine that Jenkins can use to execute jobs
C) A Jenkins plugin
D) A configuration file

Answer

15. What is a “Declarative Pipeline” in Jenkins?

Choose one option

A) A pipeline defined in a Jenkins job configuration
B) A pipeline that uses the Groovy DSL for defining steps
C) A more structured and simplified way to define pipelines
D) A pipeline written in YAML format

Answer

16. Given the following Selenium WebDriver code, what does `.sendKeys(Keys.TAB)` achieve?

Choose one option

A) Jenkins Master is the central server, while Jenkins Slave is a remote agent
B) Jenkins Master is responsible for building the software, while Jenkins Slave is responsible for testing it
C) Jenkins Master is a component of Jenkins, while Jenkins Slave is a separate tool
D) Jenkins Master is used for local builds, while Jenkins Slave is used for cloud-based builds

Answer

17. Which of the following is not a Jenkins plugin?

Choose one option

A) Git
B) Maven
C) Jenkinsfile
D) Slack

Answer

18. What is the Jenkins Pipeline Syntax?

Choose one option

A) A syntax used to define the build process in Jenkins
B) A syntax used to define the configuration of Jenkins
C) A syntax used to define the structure of Jenkins plugins
D) A syntax used to define the communication protocols used by Jenkins

Answer

 19. What is the purpose of the Jenkinsfile Validator?

A) To validate the syntax of Jenkinsfiles
B) To validate the configuration of Jenkins
C) To validate the functionality of Jenkins plugins
D) To validate the results of Jenkins builds

Answer

20. What is the purpose of the Jenkins Build Executor?

Choose one option

A) To manage the configuration of Jenkins
B) To execute Jenkins jobs on Jenkins Nodes
C) To generate reports on the status of Jenkins jobs
D) To enable Jenkins to communicate with external systems

Answer

21. What is the purpose of the Jenkins Build Queue?

A) To manage the configuration of Jenkins
B) To execute Jenkins jobs on Jenkins Nodes
C) To generate reports on the status of Jenkins jobs
D) To queue Jenkins jobs for execution by the Build Executor

Answer

22. What is the purpose of the Jenkins Artifacts?

A) To provide a log of the builds that have been performed in Jenkins
B) To manage the configuration of Jenkins
C) To store build artifacts generated by the build process
D) To enable Jenkins to communicate with external systems

Answer

23. What is the Jenkins Authentication Mechanism?

A) A tool used to manage the installation of software on Jenkins nodes
B) A feature that allows users to configure global settings in Jenkins
C) A tool used to manage the distribution of work to Jenkins slaves
D) A mechanism used to authenticate users in Jenkins

Answer

24. What is the Jenkins Master?

A) The primary node in a Jenkins cluster
B) A tool used to manage the installation of software on Jenkins nodes
C) A tool used to manage the distribution of work to Jenkins slaves
D) The machine on which the Jenkins server is installed

Answer

25. What is a Jenkins Slave?

A) A tool used to manage the installation of software on Jenkins nodes
B) A tool used to manage the distribution of work to Jenkins slaves
C) A machine that is configured to execute builds for a Jenkins Master
D) The primary node in a Jenkins cluster

Answer

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